Fix $1<p<\infty$ and let $q$ satisfy $p^{-1}+q^{-1}=1$

(a) Let $\left(f_{j}\right)$ be a sequence of functions in $L^{p}\left(\mathbb{R}^{n}\right)$. For $f \in L^{p}\left(\mathbb{R}^{n}\right)$, what is meant by (i) $f_{j} \rightarrow f$ in $L^{p}\left(\mathbb{R}^{n}\right)$ and (ii) $f_{j} \rightarrow f$ in $L^{p}\left(\mathbb{R}^{n}\right)$ ? Show that if $f_{j} \rightarrow f$, then

$$\|f\|_{L^{p}} \leqslant \liminf _{j \rightarrow \infty}\left\|f_{j}\right\|_{L^{p}}$$

(b) Suppose that $\left(g_{j}\right)$ is a sequence with $g_{j} \in L^{p}\left(\mathbb{R}^{n}\right)$, and that there exists $K>0$ such that $\left\|g_{j}\right\|_{L^{p}} \leqslant K$ for all $j$. Show that there exists $g \in L^{p}\left(\mathbb{R}^{n}\right)$ and a subsequence $\left(g_{j_{k}}\right)_{k=1}^{\infty}$, such that for any sequence $\left(h_{k}\right)$ with $h_{k} \in L^{q}\left(\mathbb{R}^{n}\right)$ and $h_{k} \rightarrow h \in L^{q}\left(\mathbb{R}^{n}\right)$, we have

$$\lim _{k \rightarrow \infty} \int_{\mathbb{R}^{n}} g_{j_{k}} h_{k} d x=\int_{\mathbb{R}^{n}} g h d x .$$

Give an example to show that the result need not hold if the condition $h_{k} \rightarrow h$ is replaced by $h_{k} \rightarrow h$ in $L^{q}\left(\mathbb{R}^{n}\right)$.