Suppose that $\bar{S}_{t} \equiv\left(S_{t}^{0}, \ldots, S_{t}^{d}\right)^{T}$ denotes the vector of prices of $d+1$ assets at times $t=0,1, \ldots$, and that $\bar{\theta}_{t} \equiv\left(\theta_{t}^{0}, \ldots, \theta_{t}^{d}\right)^{T}$ denotes the vector of the numbers of the $d+1$ different assets held by an investor from time $t-1$ to time $t$. Assuming that asset 0 is a bank account paying zero interest, that is, $S_{t}^{0}=1$ for all $t \geqslant 0$, explain what is meant by the statement that the portfolio process $\left(\bar{\theta}_{t}\right)_{t \geqslant 0}$ is self-financing. If the portfolio process is self-financing, prove that for any $t>0$

$$\bar{\theta}_{t} \cdot \bar{S}_{t}-\bar{\theta}_{0} \cdot \bar{S}_{0}=\sum_{j=1}^{t} \theta_{j} \cdot \Delta S_{j}$$

where $S_{j} \equiv\left(S_{j}^{1}, \ldots, S_{j}^{d}\right)^{T}, \Delta S_{j}=S_{j}-S_{j-1}$, and $\theta_{j} \equiv\left(\theta_{j}^{1}, \ldots, \theta_{j}^{d}\right)^{T}$.

Suppose now that the $\Delta S_{t}$ are independent with common $N(0, V)$ distribution. Let

$$F(z)=\inf E\left[\sum_{t \geqslant 1}(1-\beta) \beta^{t}\left\{\left(\bar{\theta}_{t} \cdot \bar{S}_{t}-\bar{\theta}_{0} \cdot \bar{S}_{0}\right)^{2}+\sum_{j=1}^{t}\left|\Delta \theta_{j}\right|^{2}\right\} \mid \theta_{0}=z\right]$$

where $\beta \in(0,1)$ and the infimum is taken over all self-financing portfolio processes $\left(\bar{\theta}_{t}\right)_{t \geqslant 0}$ with $\theta_{0}^{0}=0$. Explain why $F$ should satisfy the equation

$$F(z)=\beta \inf _{y}\left[y \cdot V y+|y-z|^{2}+F(y)\right]$$

If $Q$ is a positive-definite symmetric matrix satisfying the equation

$$Q=\beta(V+I+Q)^{-1}(V+Q)$$

show that $(*)$ has a solution of the form $F(z)=z \cdot Q z$.