4.II.11F

Number Theory | Part II, 2007

Let pp be a prime number, and let f(x)f(x) be a polynomial with integer coefficients, whose leading coefficient is not divisible by pp. Prove that the congruence

f(x)≡0( mod p)f(x) \equiv 0 \quad(\bmod p)

has at most dd solutions, where dd is the degree of f(x)f(x).

Deduce that all coefficients of the polynomial

xp−1−1−((x−1)(x−2)⋯(x−p+1))x^{p-1}-1-((x-1)(x-2) \cdots(x-p+1))

must be divisible by pp, and prove that:

(i) (p−1)!+1≡0( mod p)(p-1) !+1 \equiv 0 \quad(\bmod p);

(ii) if pp is odd, the numerator of the fraction

up=1+12+⋯+1p−1u_{p}=1+\frac{1}{2}+\cdots+\frac{1}{p-1}

is divisible by pp.

Assume now that p⩾5p \geqslant 5. Show by example that (i) cannot be strengthened to (p−1)!+1≡0( mod p2)(p-1) !+1 \equiv 0 \quad\left(\bmod p^{2}\right).

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