Paper 1, Section II, J

Stochastic Financial Models | Part II, 2012

Consider a multi-period binomial model with a risky asset (S0,,ST)\left(S_{0}, \ldots, S_{T}\right) and a riskless asset (B0,,BT)\left(B_{0}, \ldots, B_{T}\right). In each period, the value of the risky asset SS is multiplied by uu if the period was good, and by dd otherwise. The riskless asset is worth Bt=(1+r)tB_{t}=(1+r)^{t} at time 0tT0 \leqslant t \leqslant T, where r0r \geqslant 0.

(i) Assuming that T=1T=1 and that

d<1+r<ud<1+r<u

show how any contingent claim to be paid at time 1 can be priced and exactly replicated. Briefly explain the significance of the condition (1), and indicate how the analysis of the single-period model extends to many periods.

(ii) Now suppose that T=2T=2. We assume that u=2,d=1/3,r=1/2u=2, d=1 / 3, r=1 / 2, and that the risky asset is worth S0=27S_{0}=27 at time zero. Find the time- 0 value of an American put option with strike price K=28K=28 and expiry at time T=2T=2, and find the optimal exercise policy. (Assume that the option cannot be exercised immediately at time zero.)

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