Paper 1, Section I, F

Analysis I | Part IA, 2013

(a) Suppose bn⩾bn+1⩾0b_{n} \geqslant b_{n+1} \geqslant 0 for n⩾1n \geqslant 1 and bn→0b_{n} \rightarrow 0. Show that ∑n=1∞(−1)n−1bn\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^{n-1} b_{n} converges.

(b) Does the series ∑n=2∞1nlog⁡n\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n \log n} converge or diverge? Explain your answer.

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